John 8:40, "But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth which I have heard of God." If he had been identical with God, he would not have told the Jews that he had received his revelation from God. The truth proceeds from his own mouth, that he was not a Deity incarnate. What the opinion of his disciples was regarding this Divinity subsequently attributed to him, is sufficiently manifest, in spite of the many obscure expressions that occur in the New Testament; for instance, Paul says plainly, in his epistle to the Romans, chapter 5:15, "The gift of grace which is by One Man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many." In every part of the New Testament where Jesus speaks of himself, he represents himself as the Son of Man, and not as God.
Again, Troki betrays his ignorance of how the Greek Bible uses the terms of Lord and God. The Septuagint, which was written around 250 B.C.E. had translations for the terms which were borrowed by the New Testament writers.
A refresher:
(LORD or Lord or Yahweh = κυριος = יהוה)
(God = ο θεος = אלהים)
This can be seen in the translations of the Shema (Deuteronomy 6:4)
שְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהוָ֥ה אֶחָֽד
ἄκουε Ισραηλ κύριος ὁ θεὸς ἡμῶν κύριος εἷς ἐστιν
Hear, Israel, Yahweh our God, Yahweh one.
When reading the English, or even the Greek New Testament, one might think that the term "God" was the more exalted term while the term "Lord" was one of less exaltation. Once we realize how the Septuagint translators selected from the Greek language, the picture changes. The term "God" is equivalent to the term "Elohim" which can mean God, gods, spirits, or even mighty human judges. The term Lord, on the other hand, is equivalent to the four-letter name of God, and is used only of the Creator of the Universe.
Of course the New Testament authors never denied that Jesus was man as well as God, or that Jesus was distinct from the Father.
For further reading:
Jesus as God: Clearing the Ground
Jesus as God: A Biblical Case